GoJet Systems Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which action automatically powers both the DC Battery Bus and the DC Essential Bus when ESS TRU 1 and ESS TRU 2 fail?
• Where are the oxygen overboard discharge indicator and servicing panel located?
• How is the fluid for system one and two cooled?
• Which statement best describes DC power supply in this system?
• Which statement reflects the heating condition as described?
• When does bleed air switching occur during landing?
• Which setting corresponds to a Vfe of 185 knots for flap setting F30?
• Which response occurs when one wing tip navigation light bulb fails?
• What is the minimum oxygen pressure for dispatch for three cockpit crewmembers?
• True or False: Individual satellites can be deselected from use by entering the satellite ID on the FMS GPS Control Page.
• In flight, when the APU automatic fire protection is engaged, which action occurs?
• Which statement about Mach Trim operation relative to autopilot is true?
• Manual ground spoiler deployment method: which switch setting arms the system?
• The maximum altitude for APU bleed air is which value?
• Prior to APU start, the minimum battery voltage must be present on both batteries is
• Hydraulic systems 1 and 2 are each powered by which combination?
• Where is the slip indicator located?
• When the Captain's NORM/EMER on the Audio Control Panel is selected to EMER, what happens?
• How is the galley air heated?
• What is the minimum bleed air pressure for engine start?
• In the event of FADEC failure, can the other engine FADEC provide fuel control of both engines?
• What happens if the CPC microprocessor fails?
• Before using SPEED, V/S or Pitch mode to change altitude, what must first be done?
• Which power sources supply hydraulic pump 3B?
• How many hydraulic systems provide redundant power to the PCUs?
• The wing anti-ice cross bleed selector will allow one engine to be selected even with the bleed valves control selector in AUTO.
• What is the minimum oil temperature for start on the ground?
• Which ejectors move fuel from the center tank to the collector tanks?
• If ground spoilers fail to deploy, which switch setting is used to arm them for deployment?
• Bypass air from the N1 fan produces approximately what percent of the engine thrust?
• What is the engine ignition powered by?
• Which statement about hydraulic pressure is true when the parking brake is set and hydraulics are deactivated?
• What will happen if one of the two motors that drives the flap panel fails?
• Primary bleed air source for PWS regulation?
• When are the probes automatically heated?
• Which pump is powered by both ADG and AC BUS 1?
• ENG Ignition power sources: which statement is correct?
• How many ways can you change the setting of VHF NAV number one?
• With the cockpit switch in ARM, emergency lighting activates if there is a loss of power to which buses?
• Which color CABIN ALT message indicates the altitude is between 8,500 ft and 10,000 ft?
• What is the correct pecking order for operation of the stab trim from highest to lowest?
• During start, the thrust lever should be moved from shutoff at what percent N2?
• What must you do to return the AC ESS BUS and ACMP 3B pump to normal aircraft power once the ADG deploys?
• What is the total current capacity when all TRUs are operating?
• Identify the true statement among the following about heating when 115VAC is applied.
• After ED1 failure, which combination of actions can display the status page?
• Which valves fail in the closed position?
• How can the Hydraulic SOV be closed to interrupt fluid to the EDP?
• What is the maximum altitude for single pack operation?
• What is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed for takeoff?
• The red A/P disc button on the control wheel can accomplish two functions. Which of the following describes those functions?
• If the primary cabin pressure controller becomes unavailable, the system will
• Where does the air from the engines used for pneumatics come from?
• What is the maximum fuel imbalance for takeoff and all other phases of flight respectively?
• During engine start, is it required for the pilot to select OFF with the AC packs and open the ISOL valve?
• If one of the DCU disable switch lights is pressed, all voice messages will be inhibited except for __ and __ warnings
• What ED2 message appears when one flap motor fails and the other runs at half speed?
• If the automatic temperature control feature of an A/C pack malfunctions, what can the pilot do?
• How many minutes of oxygen will the passenger oxygen generator provide?
• Which statement about the nominal hydraulic pressure is true?
• What are the APU Starter Limits?
• The APU can be used as a source of bleed air for the aircraft ice protection systems.
• Which power source supplies pump 3B?
• When the PFD declutters, what is the result?
• The loss of hydraulic system ___ will prevent the nose gear from extending, even when using the alternate gear extension procedures.
• The two channels of each FADEC will never make a simultaneous input to the engine except when which condition is sensed?
• What is the normal hydraulic reservoir quantity range expressed as a percentage?
• Identify the statement in which the ON/OFF state has no influence on heating when 115VAC is applied.
• When the Captain's NORM/EMER switch on the ACP is set to EMER, what happens?
• Which status does the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) display on the PFD?
• What two conditions will result in an automatic manual disconnect of the IDG?
• The ARP is used to enter which of the following?
• During a Go-Around from Autopilot Couple Approach, you must press TOGA button(s) AND the A/P Disc button on the yoke to disconnect the Autopilot.
• In EICAS terminology, which color is used to indicate advisories?
• At what RPM percentage does the APU EC Unit inhibit starting when rotating in flight or on the ground?
• What effect will the loss of either the #2 or #3 hydraulic system have on braking capability?
• What are the amp-hour ratings for the Main and APU batteries?
• On which sides of the aircraft are the oxygen overboard discharge indicator and the oxygen servicing panel located?
• Fuel for the APU is drawn from which tank via which pump?
• Which statement about cross flow during takeoff is correct?
• The APU starter cut-out range is used to define what RPM range?
• Where does the VIB icon appear when vibration limits are displayed?
• If there is a failure of motive flow, is it possible to get fuel into the collector tanks?
• What are the flap handle gate positions?
• Is it allowable to dispatch with one fire detection loop inoperative for a given area?
• When the RA test button is pressed, what should be observed?
• Is it necessary to press both TOGA and A/P DISC to disconnect autopilot during go-around?
• The turbulence penetration speed is defined as which of the following?
• The hydraulic high temperature caution activates at what temperature?
• If both sources of power to FADEC fail, what will happen to the engine?
• The FAST position of the window wipers will always override any other position selected
• How are the avionics cooled?
• Which statement confirms that the ON/OFF state does not affect heating when 115VAC is applied?
• How many TRUs does the aircraft have and what are they rated at?
• Which air source cools hydraulic systems 1 and 2 during flight?
• What is the maximum altitude for using APU bleed air?
• On a GPS approach, you may continue to the missed approach point when GPS APPR appears at the bottom of the NAV source info block on the PFD.
• Which statement about the ADG deployment scenario is true?
• After an overheated brake is cooled in flight by lowering the gear, how can the pilot reset the BTMS indicated system?
• What is the maximum altitude at which a single air conditioning pack can operate?
• LH/RH ENG FIRE PUSH lights do what?
• What bleed air sources supply the PACKs?
• Which statement best describes the roll disconnect function on lateral control?
• DC power is supplied by ________.
• Drain mast heating control relies on which signal?
• During a one-engine-out event, FADEC will schedule MCT power when the thrust lever is in which detent?
• Which statement describes the role of ON/OFF in heating when 115VAC is present?
• Pressing either TOGA switch does what when airborne?
• In the event of a jammed aileron or elevator, how can the pilot regain control of the operable control surface?
• Emergency lighting is powered by ___ and illuminated automatically with a loss of either AC or DC essential power.
• What does the AFT CARGO SMOKE PUSH do?
• What is the maximum weight rating for the main cabin air stair door?
• If the bi-directional XFLOW pump fails to turn on when the fuel imbalance reaches 200 lbs, which remedy is allowed?
• What do the L/R ENG FIRE PUSH switch light do?
• If the APU electric fuel pump fails while running, which statement about restarting after shutdown is true?
• Individual satellites can be deselected from use by entering the identifier for the satellite on the FMS GPS control page.
• Which statement is true regarding wing anti-ice operations when the slats are extended?
• What happens when you press the TOGA switch on the thrust lever in flight?
• The forward cargo detection uses how many detectors?
• The N2 compressor consists of how many stages and is connected to which turbine?
• When utilizing gravity cross flow in flight, which maneuver can enhance the transfer?
• The wind ISOL Valve switch and BLEED AIR SOURCE selector will only have an effect if the bleed valves control selector is placed in which position?
• How many independent hydraulic systems provide power?
• What should you do before resetting the BTMS after an overheated brake indication on the ground?
• What happens to the water extracted from the conditioned air produced by the A/C packs?
• What is the priority of power sources for each AC bus?
• Where is the Radar Information Line displayed?
• Which hydraulic system powers the landing gear?
• Which component primarily regulates cabin pressure by adjusting flow?
• Where does fuel to operate the APU come from?
• Which condition will illuminate the fault light on the IDG DISC switchlight?
• The crew oxygen system will supply 100% oxygen at an altitude of __ regardless of the setting.
• Back course localizer approaches should be flown with the NAV button selected.
• Which stages provide bleed air to the aircraft's pneumatic systems?
• If the APU door is stuck open or its position is uncertain, what must be done?
• How is the engine oil temperature kept under control?
• The bi-directional XFLOW pump turns on and auto XFLOW begins when the fuel imbalance reaches how many pounds?
• If DME hold is selected, you will not be able to use the VOR course information for ILS or VOR tracking if you select another frequency.
• When the ECP is inhibited following ED failure, what happens to the status and synoptic pages?
• During GPS signal loss, how does the bearing pointer on the MFD respond?
• What sides of the aircraft are the oxygen 'burst disk' indicator and service panel located respectively?
• Which statement correctly states the heating behavior with 115VAC and ON/OFF independence?
• When opened from the inside, the main cabin door will normally ___.
• If ESS TRU 1&2 fail, how much would the DC Essential Bus remain powered?
• Identify the statement in which only the true heating condition is stated.
• What EICAS messages cannot be removed from view by boxing?
• How many engine-driven hydraulic pumps are on the CRJ?
• AHRS initialization time in MAG and DG is approximately?
• If motive flow is lost, how are the collector tanks kept full?
• During DME hold mode, which of the following occurs?
• Which engine acts as the master during synchronization?
• On the ground, air exhausted from the cooling displays and the avionics area exits the aircraft through ___?
• The wind shear escape guidance from the flight director is guaranteed during wind shear caution.
• Mach Trim begins to operate at 0.4 Mach and is operable in both manual and autopilot flight operations.
• The SPEED pushbutton is used to do what?
• When a hydraulic pump switch is set to AUTO, the pump will automatically start when an AC generator is online and ___.
• When the cargo fire protection discharge is activated, how long after the first bottle does the second bottle discharge?
• The two safety valves in the aft bulkhead protect against which conditions?
• APU starter limits: how many attempts and wait between attempts?
• How many wing and anti ice schedules are there?
• How will you know that APR power is being scheduled by FADEC?
• What is the purpose of the Air Conditioning System Controller (ACSC)?
• Under what condition are the probes automatically heated?
• Which statement about the anti-skid test procedure is true?
• From the following, choose the statement that reflects heating when 115VAC is present.
• What will be seen on the N2 gauges when the wing anti ice system is activated?
• In the NAV mode, is it necessary to fly a full ILS approach with glideslope?
• Which bleed valves fail in the closed position?
• If the pilot RTU has failed, which method allows changing VHF frequencies?
• Which combination triggers the stab trim warning clacker?
• How do you manually transfer fuel?
• After takeoff (no anti-icing required), what causes the bleeds to transfer from the APU to the engines?
• Which button is used to engage the CLB or DES mode?
• FADECs power source under 50% N2 with PMA above 50% N2?
• The turbulence penetration speed uses which units to specify its value, relative to Mach?
• At what temperature does the hydraulic high temperature caution activate?
• AHRS Initialization takes approximately how much time on the ground and how much time in flight?
• ADG power provides power to which systems?
• Which statement best describes the heating behavior when 115VAC is applied and ON/OFF state may be either?
• When can caution messages can be paged and boxed?
• In EICAS terminology, which color is used to indicate warnings?
• What does the FMA in the upper left corner of the PFD display?
• Flight Spoilers can be used to down to an altitude of ___.
• Which hydraulic systems must be powered when checking brake wear?
• During a starter assisted engine start, you should not try to engage the air turbine starter if the N2 RPM exceeds what percentage?
• What is the purpose of the check valve on the 6th stage bleed line?
• Which option correctly states the AHRS initialization duration?
• How many EDP hydraulic pumps are on the CRJ-700?
• The Autotune function is used to provide FMS control over which component?
• Minimum oil temperature for start on the ground?
• APU fuel is drawn from which tank?
• Which idle setting would typically be used during landing?
• What does selection of the AFT CARGO SMOKE switch light do?
• What problems will be encountered with HYD 2 LO PRESS message displayed?
• What parking brake condition is required when performing brake wear checks?
• Which hydraulic system's loss would cause nose wheel steering to go into free castoring mode?
• Which DC bus is not normally displayed on the DC synoptic page?
• Ground spoilers require which condition to deploy automatically?
• Which component provides airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed data to the PFD?
• Primary source for the potable/wash water system (PWS)?
• What is the range where the APU starter cut-out will occur?
• What is the warning associated with discharging a portable fire extinguisher in the flight deck?
• Which warnings are not inhibited when a DCU disable switch is pressed?
• Which statement about the AFT CARGO SMOKE PUSH is true?
• What is the purpose of the Isolation Valve?
• Which statement about the effect of windshield HI heat selection is true?
• Which EICAS messages cannot be removed?
• What is the minimum airspeed required for proper operation of the ADG generator?
• What does the AC ESS XFER switchlight do when selected?
• With ED2 failure or automatic transfer from ED1, what happens to the EICAS Control Panel?
• When the parking brake is set and hydraulics are deactivated, which component maintains pressure in the #3 brake accumulator?
• If the APU electric fuel pump fails while the APU is running, what happens?
• What is the normal CF34 thrust rating?
• What is the path for condensate water from the conditioned air in the air conditioning packs?
• Which parameters does the ACSC monitor to control bleed valves and distribution?
• What effect will the loss of both #2 and #3 hydraulic systems have on the landing gear?
• What does the ADG power?
• FADEC continues to update its power calculation during takeoff up to which speed and altitude, or until what event?
• What happens if a Cowl Anti-icing Duct ruptures?
• Which statement accurately describes the effect of the ON/OFF state on heating when 115VAC is applied?
• What is the max speed for the windshield wipers?
• What is the normal hydraulic reservoir quantity?
• Which hydraulic system can be used to assist manual landing gear extension if the main system fails?
• APU start limits specify how many attempts in one hour with what delays?
• What is the minimum engine fuel temperature prior to takeoff, and the minimum bulk fuel temperature depending on fuel type?
• Select the statement that correctly describes heating with 115VAC and ON/OFF conditions.
• In the pitch mode, rotating the pitch wheel one click provides how much pitch change?
• Which switch position allows conditioned air to cool the cockpit CRT displays?
• With the cockpit switch in ARM, loss of power to which bus(s) will activate the emergency lighting?
• How many idle power settings are available from FADEC?
• Where does the hydraulic pump 3B receive its power?
• Pitot Tubes P1 and P2 are pitot-static tubes while P3 is only a pitot tube.
• Which items are powered from the DC EMERGENCY Bus?
• When do the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?
• Which statement describes TOGA engagement in flight?
• After the failure of EICAS display ED1, how can the status page be displayed?
• What warning is associated with oxygen generators?
• Which device provides an alternative to the pilot RTU for tuning VHF frequencies?
• What does the AC ESS XFER switch light do when selected?
• To fly a full ILS approach with glideslope, you should select the NAV mode of the FCP.
• What will happen to the bearing pointer on the MFD if there is a signal loss?
• Which option best describes how avionics are cooled?
• The ___ provides the PFD with data consisting of airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed.
• What is the purpose of the ESS TRU 2 Transfer Contractor?
• During roll disconnect, what does the SSCU do to maintain lateral control?
• Which idle setting would typically be used during approach?
• On the ground, how long can the EFIS tubes be operated without AC power?
• What is the purpose of the isolation valve?
• Two safety valves in the aft bulkhead serve to ___?
• OEO fuel scheduling from FADEC will occur with the N1 speed difference between the engines exceeds what percentage?
• Which mode is engaged by the SPEED pushbutton?
• When can CAUTION messages be paged and boxed?
• When DME hold is selected on the PFD, which of the following describes what happens?
• The EMER DEPRESS switch light allows the outflow valve to open and the cabin will rise to ___. It should NOT be selected at altitudes above ___.
• Which switch position allows conditioned air to cool the flight deck CRT displays?
• If the 6th stage bleed path is blocked by a one-way check valve, what is the consequence for bleed air flow?
• AHRS initialization takes approximately how much time in MAG, and how much time in DG respectively?
• Which combination of cues is commonly observed during a Red Warning on ED1?
• The roll disconnect T-handle does what to unjam the ailerons?
• Pressing the ALT button on the FCP will:
• Which valves in the CRJ bleed system are designated as PRSOVs?
• Bleed air leaks are detected by which mechanism?
• If the ED1 screen fails, which ED will automatically display ED1 information?
• How many ACMP hydraulic pumps are on the CRJ-700?
• What is the purpose of the ESS TRU 2 Tie Contractor?
• Where is the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) displayed on the PFD?
• What will the APU automatic fire protection provide in flight?
• What happens if the APU detects a fire on the ground?
• What powers the DC SERV BUS?
• The rudder limiter uses inputs from the ___ and ___ to provide protection from overstress and prevent excessive side slip
• If DME hold is selected, you can still use the VOR course information for ILS or VOR tracking when another frequency is selected.
• During a wind shear warning, increasing pitch up to the Pitch Limit Marker is recommended.
• If one wing tip navigation light bulb fails, how do you switch to the secondary bulb?
• Starter disengagement should occur at what percent N2?
• Which statement best describes how satellites can be deselected for use?
• With a failure of the pilot's RTU, how can the VHF COMM and NAV frequencies be changed?
• Which option correctly states heating behavior with 115VAC and ON/OFF consideration, such that only one option is true?
• How is the Anti-Skid test performed?
• If a Red Warning message is generated on ED1, what indications will accompany it?
• After takeoff (no anti-icing required), what condition causes bleed air to transfer from engine bleed to the APU?
• How many hydraulic pumps are on the CRJ?
• How many automatic cabin pressure controllers are there?
• The hydraulic quantity readout is valid only when the system is pressurized.
• In AUTO, under what conditions do the seatbelt signs automatically illuminate?
• Which statement correctly describes the impact on braking when only one hydraulic system remains?
• Extinguishing an APU fire is accomplished through the use of which bottle?
• If the ground spoilers fail to deploy, how else can they be deployed?
• If a cabin pressure controller fails, what happens?
• The bi-directional XFLOW pump turns on when the fuel imbalance between wing tanks reaches how many pounds?
• In the event of an engine failure, there will be no way to provide air to the respective wing for ice protection. Which statement is true?
• The ESS TRU 2 Tie Contractor's function is best described as:
• Which detent is associated with scheduling APR power during an OEO scenario when the detent is in TOGA?
• Pitot tubes P1 and P2 are pitot static while the pitot tube P3 is only a pitot tube.
• The statement 'The stick pusher function will not work as long as at least one of the switches is on' is true.
• FADECs power source?
• What is the minimum oxygen pressure for dispatch for two cockpit crewmembers?
• Which hydraulic system can be used to extend the landing gear if the main system fails?
• When will the anti-skid system allow braking to occur on landing?
• During an EICAS Control Panel power failure, which of the following buttons remains operational?
• Drain masts heating status: The drain masts are heated when 115VAC power is applied to the controller, regardless of the controller ON/OFF state.
• What happens if the APU detects a fire in flight?
• In DME hold mode, what happens to the ident?
• The emergency lighting system will operate off its dedicated batteries for up to how many minutes?
• The minimum oxygen pressure for dispatch for two cockpit crewmembers is 807 psi.
• Following ED1 failure, which actions will display the EICAS status page?
• What is the normal hydraulic reservoir quantity?
• How many Halon bottles are used by the cargo fire protection system?
• Which sources can supply air to the air conditioning packs?
• What will selection of the High Power schedule switchlight do?
• The primary source of AC electrical power is the ___.
• The nosewheel steering system allows travel from neutral with the handwheel control unit?
• If HYD 2 LO PRESS is displayed along with loss HYD SYS 3, which problem will be encountered?
• The AFCS automatically selects 1/2 bank at what altitude?
• If the ground spoilers fail to deploy automatically, how else can they be deployed?
• Which statement about the hydraulic quantity readout is true?
• If the APU is rotating above __% in flight or __% on the ground, the APU Electronic Control Unit will inhibit start
• Where is the Radar Information Line displayed?
• The Engine and APU areas are protected by ___ fire detection loops. Normally ___ loops must detect a fire/overheat condition to produce the appropriate warning indications
• Where is the Trim Disc control located?
• When DME hold is selected, what is displayed/removed from view on the PFD?
• Gauges are available to alert the pilot vibration limits in which engine sections?
• Fuel pressure from the fuel metering unit is used by FADEC to operate which components?
• Which panel can be used to regain PFD information on the MFD when the PFD fails?
• Cabin pressure is maintained during flight by which mechanism?
• What function does the roll disconnect handle perform?
• Where will a pending oil filter bypass or oil chip detection alert be indicated?
• Fire detection in the forward cargo compartment is accomplished with how many detectors?
• What pressure do PRSOVs limit the pneumatic system to?
• What provides cooling air for hydraulic systems 1 and 2 during ground operations?
• How many hydraulic pumps are on the CRJ-700?
• What does the roll disconnect T-handle do to the control wheels?
• The nosewheel steering system allows travel of how many degrees from neutral with the rudder pedals?
• During a DCU warning while only one ED is operational, which page will the operable ED display?
• Emergency lights will be powered for approximately ___ during an emergency.
• What does the half-bank mode provide?
• How are the avionics cooled?
• Which valve type is specifically described as ACSC controlled in the CRJ bleed system?
• Which of the following is true about the number of automatic cabin pressure controllers?
• ENG Ignition power sources?
• On the ED2 and fuel synoptic pages, the main tank fuel quantity indications turn amber under which conditions?
• In the event of power failure of the EICAS Control Panel, what buttons will be operational?
• EMER FLAP action results in which configuration?
• In the vertical speed mode, rotating the pitch wheel one click provides how much VVI change?
• Which detent is associated with APR power during an OEO scenario?
• What should you do if you are unable to raise the gear handle after takeoff?
• How many smoke detectors are in the forward cargo and aft cargo?
• What is the normal CF34 thrust rating and its APR thrust?
• If a generator fails in flight, what should happen to maintain AC power?
• When the pilot moves the control wheel or rudder pedals, what makes the respective lift control move?
• Which of the following statements correctly pairs AHRS initialization times?
• What is the maximum bank commanded by half-bank mode?
• In AUTO mode, besides the AC generator being online, what condition must be met for the pump to start?
• Loss of hydraulic system ___ will cause the nosewheel steering to go into free castoring mode.
• During PA system use, whose transmission overrides all others?
• Minimum bleed air pressure for engine start?
• What are the APU start limits?
• What is the turbulence penetration speed?
• What does the flight abort mode of the pressurization system do?
• Which item is included in the ADG power list?
• On the ED2 and fuel synoptic pages, the main tank fuel quantity indications turn amber under which conditions?
• If the bleed valves control selector is AUTO, what is the effect of the wind ISOL Valve switch and BLEED AIR SOURCE selector?
• What is the APR thrust rating for the CF34?
• Which battery has the higher Ampere-Hour rating?
• Which pitot tube is described as 'pitot-only'?
• If the PFD display fails, how can PFD information be displayed on the MFD?
• If low fuel is detected in the left engine fuel feed line, which boost pumps activate?
• Which window heat setting heats only the windshields at the higher level?
• If slat travel stops, will the flaps continue to their selected position?
• What will happen if the Primary Trim Switches on the yoke are activated when the A/P is engaged?
• A red CABIN ALT message indicated that the cabin altitude exceeds ___ ft. An amber CABIN ALT message indicates the cabin altitude is ___.
• To make a cabin announcement on the PA system, what should you do?
• In flight, what does the APU automatic fire protection do?
• The statement 'All fuel tanks can be serviced by utilizing the overwing filler caps' is:
• What is the maximum speed for the operation of the windshield wipers?
• How many TRUs are included in the DC electrical system?
• Which items are powered by the DC EMER BUS?
• Which statement about the automatic seatbelt illumination in AUTO mode is true?
• Under which condition does the AILC schedule use a higher temperature?
• If the only operative ED is displaying a status or synoptic page and a DCU warning occurs, what should happen?
• Pitch trim is ___ actuated.
• If engine bleed air is unavailable, which alternative sources may supply air to the packs?
• The Air Data Computer receives static air pressure measurements from the ___ to display information on the PFD.
• If the EMER FLAP switch is set to DEPLOY above the flap limit airspeed of 230 kts, what happens to the flaps/slats?
• Which component closes to allow the remaining generator to power both AC systems after a generator failure?
• How is the Anti-skid test performed?
• What are the Vfe speeds for the selected flap settings?
• If ESS TRU 1 and ESS TRU 2 fail, how would the DC ESS BUS remain powered?
• What does an illuminated fault light on the Auto Xfer switchlight indicate?
• When N2 exceeds 50%, which component powers the FADEC PMA alternator?
• Which busses are powered with no AC power available and the Battery Master OFF?
• Which items are powered from the DC Emergency Bus?
• During extreme pitch or bank attitudes, what action does the PFD take to improve readability?
• How many stages does the N2 compressor have?
• After an EICAS Control Panel (ECP) failure, which buttons remain operative?
• How would you select the other auto pressure controller in flight? How would you select the Manual controller?
• The taxi/recognition lights should be turned OFF if the aircraft is stopped for more than how long?
• During a GPS approach, what allows you to continue the approach to the missed approach point?
• What part of the IDG keeps the Generator turning at a constant speed of 12,000 rpm?
• What does Flight Abort Mode do after takeoff?
• The flight director will provide wind shear escape guidance during both a wind shear caution and a wind shear warning from the EGPWS system.
• Which EICAS messages cannot be paged?
• What happens if a Cowl Anti-Icing duct ruptures?
• From which tank is the APU's fuel supplied?
• During an APU fire protection activation in flight, what happens to the APU?
• Which component moves fuel from the center tank to the main tanks?
• Which bleed air sources feed the PACKS?
• Which hydraulic pumps are not controlled by the Hydraulic Control Panel?
• If ice is detected on one of the ice detector probes, the respective ice protection systems will automatically be activated.
• Where are the reference speeds, MDA, DH, and barometric altimeter settings entered?
• When SEAT BLTS switch is AUTO, under what conditions do the seatbelt signs illuminate automatically?
• At what altitude does the AFCS automatically select 1/2 bank?
• Continuous ignition must be on during which condition?
• How many wing anti-ice schedules are there?
• For the stab trim warning clacker, at what condition and duration does it sound?
• How do you manually transfer fuel?
• What is the tolerance specified for the minimum bleed air pressure during engine start?
• Which cockpit light is powered by the battery bus and will cause the battery to be drained, even when the battery master switch is OFF?
• Which statement best describes the standby position on the Display/Avionics fan control panel?
• Which statement reflects heating behavior independent of the ON/OFF state when 115VAC is applied?
• What are the maximum positive and negative cabin pressure differentials?
• What is the APU starter cutout RPM?
• Under which condition would BLEED MISCONFIG appear on EICAS?
• What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn?
• If the main wing tip navigation bulb fails, how is the backup provided?
• Which option correctly states the action when low fuel is detected in the left engine fuel feed line?
• 1/2 BANK is available in TO and GA mode.
• Do the vibration limit gauges alert the pilot for both N1 and N2, only N1, or only N2?
• How many attempts can be made to reset a failed generator if the checklist calls for it?
• The maximum altitude for starting the APU is __. It can be operated up to __.
• When the High Pressure Bleed valve on the 10th stage is providing air, what effect does this have on the 6th stage?
• What is the purpose of the Air Conditioning System Controller (ACSC)?
• The Flight Mode Annunciator provides status for which function?
• With a B hydraulic pump in AUTO position, what will cause the pump to operate?
• Which system component sends fuel from the center tank to the engines or APU?
• When does engine synchronization occur?
• Which action selects the manual cabin pressure controller?
• APU bleed air can be used in flight up to what altitude?
• What is another valid method to test the anti-skid system besides the self-test in the control unit?
• How many minutes do the oxygen generators provide oxygen?
• What happens if the active cabin pressure controller fails?
• What are the FADECs powered by?
• Where is the slip indicator located?
• What is the required procedure to make a cabin announcement using the Public Address System?
• Which statement accurately describes the number of idle power settings available from FADEC?
• When are all probes automatically heated?
• Which action sequence correctly enables a cabin announcement on the Public Address System?
• The following statement is true: It is not possible to use the APU in the anti-ice system with the Pneumatic system in AUTO, but it can be done with manual control of the bleed air system.
• Minimum pavement width for a 180-degree turn is 75 ft.
• How is the APU started?
• Which system automatically controls proper operation during engine start instead of manual pilot action?
• What is the normal power source for the AC ESS BUS?
• In a runaway trim situation, which action disconnects the trim?
• Which power source powers the cockpit voice recorder?
• Which hydraulic system powers the landing gear under normal operation?
• What is the primary power source for the potable/wash water system (PWS)?
• During a wind shear warning, you should increase pitch up to the Pitch Limit Marker (alpha-margin indicator).
• Hydraulic pumps pressurize each system to a nominal pressure of ___ PSI.
• When the active Cabin Pressure Controller fails, what happens automatically?
• How many transformer rectifier units supply DC power?
• During a wind shear warning, you should increase pitch up to the Pitch Limit Marker (alpha-margin indicator).
• With the same indications of an overheated brake on the ground, what should you do?
• What type of engine air bleed valves are installed on the CRJ-700?
• What does EMER FLAP do?
• What does the EMER FLAP switch do?
• What function does the roll disconnect perform?
• Which item is not part of the AC bus power priority?
• What occurs when the cargo fire protection discharge switchlight is pressed?
• Where does air exhausted from cooling displays exit on the ground?
• Which panels can be used to regain ECP operation after it is inhibited due to ED failures?
• When the parking brake is set and hydraulic systems are deactivated, what happens to brake pressure?
• If engine start bleed pressure reads 41 psi, is this within tolerance?
• What does an illuminated FAULT light on the CABIN PRESS panel indicate and what would you do?
• True or False: If slat travel stops, flaps will continue to their selected position?
• What type of engine air bleed valves are installed on the CRJ?
• On the ground, how long can the EFIS tubes operate without AC power?
• Which of the following statements about galley heater control is true?
• What does the ADG Power supply?
• What are the Ampere-Hour ratings of the main and APU batteries?
• Which statement correctly describes heating with respect to voltage and ON/OFF state?
• With a loss of control power, what will happen to the HPV, PRSOV, and APU LCV?
• What EICAS messages cannot be paged?
• What is the minimum air temperature in flight?
• If ESS TRU 1 and ESS TRU 2 fail, which interconnections enable TRU to power both the DC BATT BUS and DC ESS BUS?
• The taxi/recognition light will come on, regardless of its switch position, if which condition occurs?
• What is the maximum altitude for single A/C pack operation?
• Which description accurately reflects the actions performed by the red autopilot disc button on the control wheel?
• Where are the cargo smoke detectors located?
• Which control allows routing bleed air from the good engine to both wings for wing anti-ice after engine failure?
• With the bleed valve control in the manual mode, is it possible to provide APU air to the Wing Ice protection system?
• What is the maximum positive cabin pressure differential?
• Which statement is true regarding the heating of the drain masts when 115VAC power is applied to the controller?
• During a one-engine-out event, FADEC will schedule APR power when the thrust lever is in which detent?
• Which door is not displayed on the DOORS synoptic page?
• The Radar Information Line is displayed on top of the MFD.
• A fault on which buses would cause the Auto Xfer to be inhibited, as indicated by the fault light?
• What does CSD stand for?
• After the failure of ED1, How can the status page be displayed?
• Which components move fuel from the main tanks to the engines or APU?
• When do passenger oxygen masks deploy?
• What hydraulic pumps are not controlled by the Hydraulic Control Panel?
• To display TCAS information on the MFD, which control must be pressed?
• Is it true that releasing the IDG DISC switchlight after pressing it regains the generator?